WHY IS THE NEW TESTAMENT IN GREEK?
(Message by Tanny Keng)
1. Why is the New Testament written in the Greek language?
a) The basic reason why the New Testament was originally written in Greek instead of Aramaic or Hebrew was because the writers wished to reach a broad, gentile audience, not just a Jewish audience. The language used by both the disciples and Christ was highly likely Aramaic. A Semitic language like Hebrew, Aramaic is nevertheless not the original language of the Jews.
b) Greek was the leading written and spoken language of the eastern Mediterranean world when Rome ruled the world. Indeed, it remained the dominant language, especially in the large cities of Alexandria, Antioch, etc., until after the Arab Muslim conquest, long after the time the Western Roman Empire fell in 476 A.D.
c) By the time of the New Testament church in the first century A.D. Hellenism had greatly influenced and changed the people and culture of Judea. Greek, not Hebrew, was the commonly used language of Palestine during the rule of the Roman Empire. The ability to speak this language was a needed skill in the Roman world as it was used as the standard way of communicating, carrying out business, and so on. Greek was used in New Testament times to communicate between people who grew up in different areas of the world and whose native tongues were quite different.
d) The well-known Jewish historian of the first century, Josephus, stated that the ability to speak Greek was very common not only among the general populous but also among servants and slaves.
e) Some evidence that Christ spoke the Greek language does exist in the Bible. Jesus utilized at least two Grecian words for love in his well-known post-resurrection conversation with Peter regarding how much he loved him. He used the word AGAPE, which is a deep love and PHILEO, which is brotherly love toward someone we like (see John 21: 15 - 17). These words have no exact corresponding word either in Hebrew or in Aramaic.
f) Jesus' play on words for "stone" and "rock" while talking with Peter in Matthew 16:18 also uses Grecian words that cannot be replicated in another language.
i) "And I also say to you that you are Peter (Petros, Strong's Concordance #G4074, which literally means a stone), and on this rock (Petra, Strong's #G4073, which literally means a massive rock) I will build My church . . ." (Matthew 16:18)
g) In Mark 7 is the story of a gentile woman who requested Jesus heal her young daughter. After being initially rebuffed she persisted with her request. Jesus responded that he was sent to save and serve Israelites and that 'It isn’t right to take the children’s food and throw it to the dogs' (Mark 7:27). The word he used for 'dogs' was the Greek word for a puppy or dog (Kunarion, Strong's Concordance #G2952) that were household pets. He could have, but did not, use the much harsher Hebrew term for dogs commonly used by the Jews in their hatred and contempt for Gentiles.
h) Additionally, Pontius Pilate could well have questioned Jesus in Greek, since few non-Romans in Judea spoke Latin. It is highly unlikely Pilate would have known the local languages of the "despised" and conquered peoples he ruled in the name of the mighty Roman Empire. Hence Jesus, befitting a Jew raised in 'Galilee of the Gentiles' (Isaiah 9:1), could converse with people of both Jewish and gentile backgrounds.
i) Since the apostles and evangelists in the early New Testament church wished to reach as large an audience as possible, they chose to write in Greek and not Aramaic or Hebrew. This is the fundamental reason why they choose it to write their books.
The End ...
1. Why is the New Testament written in the Greek language?a) The basic reason why the New Testament was originally written in Greek instead of Aramaic or Hebrew was because the writers wished to reach a broad, gentile audience, not just a Jewish audience. The language used by both the disciples and Christ was highly likely Aramaic. A Semitic language like Hebrew, Aramaic is nevertheless not the original language of the Jews.
b) Greek was the leading written and spoken language of the eastern Mediterranean world when Rome ruled the world. Indeed, it remained the dominant language, especially in the large cities of Alexandria, Antioch, etc., until after the Arab Muslim conquest, long after the time the Western Roman Empire fell in 476 A.D.
c) By the time of the New Testament church in the first century A.D. Hellenism had greatly influenced and changed the people and culture of Judea. Greek, not Hebrew, was the commonly used language of Palestine during the rule of the Roman Empire. The ability to speak this language was a needed skill in the Roman world as it was used as the standard way of communicating, carrying out business, and so on. Greek was used in New Testament times to communicate between people who grew up in different areas of the world and whose native tongues were quite different.
d) The well-known Jewish historian of the first century, Josephus, stated that the ability to speak Greek was very common not only among the general populous but also among servants and slaves.
e) Some evidence that Christ spoke the Greek language does exist in the Bible. Jesus utilized at least two Grecian words for love in his well-known post-resurrection conversation with Peter regarding how much he loved him. He used the word AGAPE, which is a deep love and PHILEO, which is brotherly love toward someone we like (see John 21: 15 - 17). These words have no exact corresponding word either in Hebrew or in Aramaic.
f) Jesus' play on words for "stone" and "rock" while talking with Peter in Matthew 16:18 also uses Grecian words that cannot be replicated in another language.
i) "And I also say to you that you are Peter (Petros, Strong's Concordance #G4074, which literally means a stone), and on this rock (Petra, Strong's #G4073, which literally means a massive rock) I will build My church . . ." (Matthew 16:18)
g) In Mark 7 is the story of a gentile woman who requested Jesus heal her young daughter. After being initially rebuffed she persisted with her request. Jesus responded that he was sent to save and serve Israelites and that 'It isn’t right to take the children’s food and throw it to the dogs' (Mark 7:27). The word he used for 'dogs' was the Greek word for a puppy or dog (Kunarion, Strong's Concordance #G2952) that were household pets. He could have, but did not, use the much harsher Hebrew term for dogs commonly used by the Jews in their hatred and contempt for Gentiles.
h) Additionally, Pontius Pilate could well have questioned Jesus in Greek, since few non-Romans in Judea spoke Latin. It is highly unlikely Pilate would have known the local languages of the "despised" and conquered peoples he ruled in the name of the mighty Roman Empire. Hence Jesus, befitting a Jew raised in 'Galilee of the Gentiles' (Isaiah 9:1), could converse with people of both Jewish and gentile backgrounds.
i) Since the apostles and evangelists in the early New Testament church wished to reach as large an audience as possible, they chose to write in Greek and not Aramaic or Hebrew. This is the fundamental reason why they choose it to write their books.
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